ACC 432 Final Exam

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

1) Proceeds from an issue of debt securities having stock warrants should NOT be allocated between debt and equity features when

A.	the allocation would result in a discount on the debt security.
B.	the warrants issued with the debt securities are nondetachable.
C.	exercise of the warrants within the next few fiscal periods seems remote.
D.	the market value of the warrants is NOT readily available.

2) The conversion of preferred stock may be recorded by the

A.	market value method.
B.	par value method.
C.	book value method.
D.	incremental method.

3) The conversion of preferred stock into common stock requires that any excess of the par value of the common shares issued over the carrying amount of the preferred being converted should be

A.	treated as a prior period adjustment.
B.	treated as a direct reduction of retained earnings.
C.	reflected currently in income as an extraordinary item.
D.	reflected currently in income, but NOT as an extraordinary item.

4) A primary source of stockholders’ equity is

A.	contributions by stockholders.
B.	both income retained by the corporation and contributions by stockholders.
C.	appropriated retained earnings.
D.	income retained by the corporation.

5) Stockholders’ equity is generally classified into two major categories:

A.	retained earnings and unappropriated capital.
B.	earned capital and contributed capital.
C.	appropriated capital and retained earnings.
D.	contributed capital and appropriated capital.

6) When a corporation issues its capital stock in payment for services, the least appropriate basis for recording the transaction is the

A.	market value of the shares issued.
B.	Any of these provides an appropriate basis for recording the transaction.
C.	par value of the shares issued.
D.	market value of the services received.

7) Treasury shares are

A.	shares held as an investment by the treasurer of the corporation.
B.	issued but NOT outstanding shares.
C.	shares held as an investment of the corporation.
D.	issued and outstanding shares.

8) “Gains” on sales of treasury stock (using the cost method) should be credited to

A.	paid-in capital from treasury stock.
B.	other income.
C.	capital stock.
D.	retained earnings.

9) How should a “gain” from the sale of treasury stock be reflected when using the cost method of recording treasury stock transactions?

A.	As ordinary earnings shown on the income statement.
B.	As an extraordinary item shown on the income statement.
C.	As paid-in capital from treasury stock transactions.
D.	As an increase in the amount shown for common stock.

10) In computing earnings per share, the equivalent number of shares of convertible preferred stock are added as an adjustment to the denominator (number of shares outstanding). If the preferred stock is cumulative, which amount should then be added as an adjustment to the numerator (net earnings)?

A.	Annual preferred dividend
B.	Annual preferred dividend divided by the income tax rate
C.	Annual preferred dividend times (one minus the income tax rate)
D.	Annual preferred dividend times the income tax rate

11) When computing diluted earnings per share, convertible bonds are

A.	ignored.
B.	assumed converted only if they are dilutive.
C.	assumed converted whether they are dilutive or antidilutive.
D.	assumed converted only if they are antidilutive.

12) What effect will the acquisition of treasury stock have on stockholders’ equity and earnings per share, respectively?

A.	Decrease and no effect
B.	Increase and decrease
C.	Increase and no effect
D.	Decrease and increase

13) On May 1, 2007, Kent Corp. declared and issued a 10% common stock dividend. Prior to this dividend, Kent had 100,000 shares of $1 par value common stock issued and outstanding. The fair value of Kent ‘s common stock was $20 per share on May 1, 2007. As a result of this stock dividend, Kent’s total stockholders’ equity

A.	did NOT change.
B.	increased by $200,000.
C.	decreased by $10,000.
D.	decreased by $200,000.

14) How would the declaration and subsequent issuance of a 10% stock dividend by the issuer affect each of the following when the market value of the shares exceeds the par value of the stock?

Additional Common Stock | Paid-in Capital

A.	Increase \| Increase
B.	No effect \| No effect
C.	Increase \| No effect
D.	No effect \| Increase

15) At its date of incorporation, Wilson, Inc. issued 100,000 shares of its $10 par common stock at $11 per share. During the current year, Wilson acquired 20,000 shares of its common stock at a price of $16 per share and accounted for them by the cost method. Subsequently, these shares were reissued at a price of $12 per share. There have been no other issuances or acquisitions of its own common stock. What effect does the reissuance of the stock have on the following accounts?

Retained Earnings | Additional Paid-in Capital

A.	No effect \| No effect
B.	Decrease \| Decrease
C.	Decrease \| No effect
D.	No effect \| Decrease

16) Which of the following is correct about the effective-interest method of amortization?

A.	The effective-interest method produces a constant rate of return on the book value of the investment from period to period.
B.	The effective interest method applied to investments in debt securities is different from that applied to bonds payable.
C.	Amortization of a premium decreases from period to period.
D.	Amortization of a discount decreases from period to period.

17) An unrealized holding loss on a company’s available-for-sale securities should be reflected in the current financial statements as

A.	other comprehensive income and deducted in the equity section of the balance sheet.
B.	an extraordinary item shown as a direct reduction from retained earnings.
C.	a note or parenthetical disclosure only.
D.	a current loss resulting from holding securities.

18) An unrealized holding gain on a company’s available-for-sale securities should be reflected in the current financial statements as

A.	other comprehensive income and included in the equity section of the balance sheet.
B.	an extraordinary item shown as a direct increase to retained earnings.
C.	a note or parenthetical disclosure only.
D.	a current gain resulting from holding securities.

19) Investments in debt securities should be recorded on the date of acquisition at

A.	face value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase.
B.	lower of cost or market.
C.	market value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase.
D.	market value.

20) Securities which could be classified as held-to-maturity are

A.	warrants.
B.	redeemable preferred stock.
C.	municipal bonds.
D.	treasury stock.

21) Which of the following is NOT a debt security?

A.	Commercial paper
B.	Convertible bonds
C.	Loans receivable
D.	All of these are debt securities.

22) An investor has a long-term investment in stocks. Regular cash dividends received by the investor are recorded as

Fair Value Method | Equity Method

A.	A reduction of the investment \| A reduction of the investment
B.	Income \| Income
C.	Income \| A reduction of the investment
D.	A reduction of the investment \| Income

23) When a company holds between 20% and 50% of the outstanding stock of an investee, which of the following statements applies?

A.	The investor should use the equity method to account for its investment unless circum-stances indicate that it is unable to exercise “significant influence” over the investee.
B.	The investor should always use the equity method to account for its investment.
C.	The investor must use the fair value method unless it can clearly demonstrate the ability to exercise “significant influence” over the investee.
D.	The investor should always use the fair value method to account for its investment.

24) Bista Corporation declares and distributes a cash dividend that is a result of current earnings. How will the receipt of those dividends affect the investment account of the investor under each of the following accounting methods?

Fair Value Method | Equity Method

A.	Increase \| Decrease
B.	No Effect \| Decrease
C.	No Effect \| No Effect
D.	Decrease \| No Effect

25) Debt securities that are accounted for at amortized cost, NOT fair value, are

A.	trading debt securities.
B.	held-to-maturity debt securities.
C.	available-for-sale debt securities.
D.	never-sell debt securities.

26) Equity securities acquired by a corporation which are accounted for by recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses as other comprehensive income and as a separate component of stockholders’ equity are

A.	trading securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.
B.	available-for-sale securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.
C.	securities where a company has holdings of between 20% and 50%.
D.	securities where a company has holdings of more than 50%.

27) Use of the effective-interest method in amortizing bond premiums and discounts results in

	A. a smaller amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method.
	B. a greater amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method.
	C. a varying amount being recorded as interest income from period to period.
	D. a variable rate of return on the book value of the investment.

28) All of the following are characteristics of a derivative financial instrument EXCEPT the instrument

A.	All of these are characteristics.
B.	has one or more underlyings and an identified payment provision.
C.	requires a large investment at the inception of the contract.
D.	requires or permits net settlement.

29) The accounting for fair value hedges records the derivative at its

A.	historical cost.
B.	amortized cost.
C.	carrying value.
D.	fair value.

30) All of the following statements regarding accounting for derivatives are correct EXCEPT that

A.	gains and losses resulting from hedge transactions are reported in different ways, depending upon the type of hedge.
B.	they should be recognized in the financial statements as assets and liabilities.
C.	they should be reported at fair value.
D.	gains and losses resulting from speculation should be deferred.

BUS 401 Final Exam

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

1. JBC Corp. declared a dividend of $2 per share, which was an increase of 25% from the prior year, yet JBC Corp. stock declined by 3% the day of the announcement. RBG Corp. declared a dividend of $2 per share, which was the same as the prior year, and its stock increased in value by 2% on the day of the announcement. These events could be most readily explained by the (Points : 1)

information effect.

clientele effect.

expectations theory.

residual dividend theory.

2. A firm’s optimal capital structure occurs where? (Points : 1)

EPS are maximized, and WACC is minimized.

Stock price is maximized, and EPS are maximized.

Stock price is maximized, and WACC is maximized.

WACC is minimized, and stock price is maximized.

3. Flotation costs: (Points : 1)

include the fees paid to the investment bankers, lawyers, and accountants involved in selling a new security issue.

encourage firms to pay large dividends.

are encountered whenever a firm fails to pay a dividend.

are incurred when investors fail to cash their dividend check.

4. Assume that the tax on dividends and the tax on capital gains is the same. All else equal, what would a prudent investor prefer? (Points : 1)

The prudent investor would be indifferent between receiving dividends or capital gains.

The prudent investor would prefer dividendsa dollar today is always worth more than a dollar to be received in the future.

The prudent investor would prefer capital gainsthe capital gain tax liability can be deferred until gains are realized.

More information is needed.

5. The break-even point is equal to (Points : 1)

fixed costs divided by (sales price per unit — variable cost per unit).

fixed costs divided by unit variable costs.

fixed costs divided by selling price per unit.

(sales price per unit — variable cost per unit) times the fixed costs.

6. The payment of dividends may indirectly result in closer monitoring of management’s investment activities, thus increasing shareholder value by (Points : 1)

reducing agency costs.

increasing information asymmetry.

increasing a company’s amount of free cash flow.

reducing auditing fees.

7. A firm that uses large amounts of debt financing in an industry characterized by a high degree of business risk would have ______ earnings per share fluctuations resulting from changes in levels of sales. (Points : 1)

no

constant

large

small

8. A high degree of variability in a firm’s earnings before interest and taxes refers to (Points : 1)

business risk.

financial risk.

financial leverage.

operating leverage.

9. As production levels increase, (Points : 1)

variable costs per unit decrease.

fixed costs per unit increase.

fixed costs per unit stay the same and variable costs per unit increase.

fixed costs per unit decrease and variable costs per unit stay the same.

10. Moline Manufacturing Corporation reported the following items: Sales = $6,000,000; Variable Costs of Production = $1,500,000; Variable Selling and Administrative Expenses = $550,000; Fixed Costs = $1,350,000; EBIT = $2,600,000; and the Marginal Tax Rate =35%. Moline’s break-even point in sales dollars is (Points : 1)

$2,050,633.
$2,197,500.
$2,438,750.
$2,785,000.

SCI 220 Human Nutrition Food Intake

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

University of Phoenix Material Food Intake– 3 Days

Write a 750- to 1,050-word paper that addresses the following points about the 3-day
food intake information you recorded in iProfile:

Recorded intake of protein, carbohydrates, and
lipids

Which foods in your recorded daily intake
provide protein? Which provide carbohydrate? Which provide lipids?

Review how your recorded protein, carbohydrate,
and lipid intake compares with the recommendations of the dietary reference intake
(DRI). If your recorded protein-carbohydrate-fat intake was too high or too
low, which foods might you add or remove to achieve your goal and keep other
nutrients in balance?

Is the protein in each of the foods you ate
complete or incomplete, thus combining to become complementary? Why is this
fact important?

How much of your daily-recommended protein,
carbohydrate, and lipid intake did you achieve? Were you surprised by the
number? If your macronutrient intake is insufficient, what might you do to
bring it into the recommended range? Provide specific recommendations.

Macronutrient intake ranges

Is macronutrient intake within the recommended
range important? What are the effects of too much or too little of a
macronutrient? What happens if you consistently eat too little protein? What
happens if you eat too few carbohydrates? What happens if you eat too few
lipids?

Fiber intake ranges

Does your fiber total meet 100% of the
recommendation for you as calculated at the iProfile website?

Do you think your intake was too high, too low,
or just right? Provide a rationale.

Does your diet meet the minimum number of
servings of foods from each fiber-containing group? If not, which of the
fiber-containing groups—fruits and vegetables—fell short of the recommended
intake?

Which specific foods provide the most fiber in
your days’ meals? Which provide the least? Identify trends in your food choices
that might affect your fiber intakes.

Dietary modifications

Are you able to identify any patterns or trends
within your diet? If so, what are they?

What changes might you make among your
vegetables, fruits, meat and meat alternatives, or grain choices to increase
the fiber in your diet?

Do your meals include fiber-rich bean dishes,
such as chili, beans in a salad, or split-pea soup?

If you drink fruit juice instead of eating whole
fruit, what might happen to the fiber content and calorie content in your diet?

How might insufficient or excessive amounts of
proteins, carbohydrates, fats, or fiber contribute to health or illness?
Provide examples.

HCS 325 Week 5 Team Organizational Structure Presentation

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

Consider the following scenario:

· You are a manager of a large rehabilitation center that provides short-term care rehabilitation services on an inpatient and outpatient basis. Your center is proposing a new addition of long-term care services and, with this expansion, you must hire and train several new employees.

Develop a 12- to 15-slide Microsoft^® PowerPoint^® presentation on the organizational structure of the rehabilitation center described in the scenario above. Create the presentation for the audience you selected in Week Two.

· For assistance with this type of assignment, review these resources.

Address the following in your presentation:

· The effects of organizational structure on communication

o What are appropriate communication methods for managers within this organization?

o What is the importance of these communication methods within this organizational structure?

o What internal relationships must be considered?

o What external relationships must be considered?

· The steps involved in organizational planning and functions of management

o What steps are used to plan and implement change within the organization?

o How might these steps be applied to the scenario?

· Strategies and methods needed to influence organizational change and to minimize conflict

o What are strategies that might be used to bring about change in the organization?

SOWK 1100 – Values Assignment

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

SOWK 1100 – Values Assignment

Values and ethics are a cornerstone of professional practice in many disciplines, but particularly in social work. In order to be an effective clinician, you need to have a working understanding of the profession’s values as well as your own personal ones. This assignment will give you the opportunity to explore your own personal values as well as develop a beginning understand of professional social work values and ethics.

Competencies Addressed:

2.1.2—Apply social work ethical principles to guide professional practice.

Assignment:

In a 1-2 page paper, please answer the following questions:

1. What are your core values?

2. Where/how did you learn these values?

3. Explain (in your own words) the ethical principles and values of the social work profession according to NASW. Don’t just list them, explain them.

4. In what areas do your values agree with social work values?

5. In what areas do your values diverge from social work values?

6. How might differences in your values hinder or affect your ability to be a practicing social worker?

Be sure that your paper is narrative in format. Do not just state the question and answer it. Make sure that you put some thought into your responses. Your paper should be double spaced with one inch margins and your name in the upper right corner. Pages should be STAPLED together. Do not fold edges or use paper clips as the pages can become separated and lost. Be sure that you use proper grammar, punctuation and spelling.

Paper Format

Paragraph 1 – answer questions 1 and 2

Paragraph 2 – answer question 3

Paragraph 3 – answer questions 4-6

HCS 325 Entire Course

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

Prepare a 300-700 word paper based on your readings for this week describing “your” definition of the role and application of management functions used by today’s health care managers. Consider the following:

o What is the most important role or function for a health care manager?

o What is the most significant aspect related to health care management that you want to gain by taking this class?

· Use a minimum of two references to support your paper.

· Few healthcare workplaces today can be considered true boundaryless organizations. Workplace trends within and outside healthcare are requiring employees to connect with an ever-widening array of co-workers, consultants, off-site employees, and other resources. Whatever form a boundaryless organization takes, sharing knowledge is critical to the organization’s success.

· Prepare a 700-1050 paper in which you consider ways in which your organization currently shares knowledge and/or involves employees in formulating solutions to problems.

o What techniques have been most effective for sharing information and ideas?

o What techniques were ineffective?

o How might these techniques be applied or modified in a healthcare wo

· Create a 2-3 page outline for your Learning Team presentation in which you frame the presentation to be given in week 5. Use the requirements given in week 1 to help draft the outline. Although week’s 4 and 5 should not be fully developed they should include surface level type information.

rk environment?

o How can technology impact this process as well?

· Use a minimum of 3 references to support your paper.

· Within your organization, upper management has decided that certain changes need to be made and it is up to each manager to start preparing their team for the changes. One of the changes that need to be addressed involves motivational techniques. As manager it is your job to research and understand various motivational methods in order to implement them within the team.

· Prepare a 1050-1400 paper in which you discuss at least 3 motivational methods you would apply as a manager and how this change can affect the organization. Provide at least three sources in your response.

· Finalize and submit your Learning Team Presentation. Make sure that all requirements are met including detailed presenter notes.

taking action

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

Assignment 2: LASA 1: Taking Action

In this course, you have been introduced to ethics, social problems, and social policy. This assignment will prompt action from you to help resolve a social issue. You must learn about a problem, find a piece of legislation addressing your concern, and act to help solve the problem.

Using the textbook, the Argosy University online library resources, and the Internet, do the following:

1. Identify the Problem

Select and research a social issue based on the course readings or personal interest.

Then, address the following:

Define and describe the social issue in detail using a variety of relevant outside sources.
Explain the social context of the social issue.
Identify and describe ethical concerns related to the social issue.
Determine what population is most impacted by the social issue.

2. Find the Legislation

Use credible government sources to find and learn about a piece of legislation related to your chosen social problem or issue.

Then, address the following:

Explain how the piece of current legislation relates to the social problem or issue. Make sure you provide a description of the piece of legislation.

3. Write an Advocacy Letter

In order to help resolve the social issue, you must take action. Identify your elected representative(s) and find their contact and e-mail addresses.

Write an advocacy letter regarding the piece of legislation and your support of or opposition to it.

The purpose of an advocacy letter is to support or oppose the legislation that affects a social issue of concern to you. This letter is a way for representatives to stay in touch with the constituents they represent. The letter consists of a brief introduction identifying and addressing the social issue of concern (through personal experience, if applicable), an identification of the piece of current legislation that addresses your chosen issue, and your request advocating your representative to support or oppose the legislation.

Be sure to address the following in your letter:

Identify the purpose of your letter.
Identify House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of the legislation.
Briefly summarize the social problem or issue.
Explain the importance of the legislation as it relates to your issue.
Advocate for or against the legislation in a knowledgeable and respectful tone. This includes the following:
- Evaluating the proposed impact of the legislation on target population
- Proposing possible ways the legislation can influence the social problem or issue

Download and review samples of advocacy letters. Use either of the sample letters as a template for your own letter.

Write a 3–5-page report in Word format that begins with an Advocacy Letter followed by a supporting report of 3–5-pages. Apply APA standards to citation of sources. Use the following file naming convention: LastnameFirstInitial_M3_A2.doc.

By Wednesday, September 24, 2014, deliver your assignment to the M3: Assignment 2 Dropbox.

Assignment 2 Grading Criteria	Maximum Points
Identify the Problem: Define and describe the social issue in detail using relevant outside sources. (Course Objective [CO] 1)	24
Identify the Problem: Identify and describe ethical concerns and population(s) most impacted by this social issue. (CO 1, 4)	28
Finding the Legislation: Explain piece of current legislation related to social problem/issue and evaluate legislation related to social problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)	28
Advocacy Letter: Identify purpose of your letter, as well as, the House bill (HR) or Senate bill (S) number of legislation. (CO 1, 2)	20
Advocacy Letter: Analyze the importance of legislation related to problem or issue. (CO 3, 4)	28
Advocacy Letter: Advocate for or against legislation in knowledgeable and respectable tone. (CO 4)	28
Written Components: Organization. (12) Usage and mechanics. (12) APA elements. (16) Style. (4)	44
Total:	200

Click here to download a sample advocacy letter.

BSHS/445 assessing the crisis

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

University of Phoenix Material

Assessing the Crisis

Part One

Watch the Scenario 6 video clip, “Crisis Line.” Using the hybrid model, provide an example of each step illustrated in the video.

Tasks in the hybrid model	Example of each step
Predispositioning, engaging, and initiating contact
Exploring problems: defining the crisis
Providing support
Examining alternatives
Planning in order to reestablish control
Obtaining commitment
Following up

Part Two

Create a progress note* that captures the ABCs of assessment—affective, behavioral, and cognitive—from the video in Part One. See the following example before completing the table that follows.

Affective

Client is a 20-year-old single Caucasian female. She reported feeling upset for the last 2 months since her boyfriend broke up with her. Client appeared to be depressed, as evidenced by tearfulness during the session. Client denied any suicidal or homicidal ideation (SI/HI) and reported no past history of danger to self or others (DTS/DTO).

Behavioral

Client was asked if there have been times in the past that she felt this way. She stated the last time she felt like this was a year ago when she failed her math final. This writer explored strategies with the client that helped the last time she felt this way. The client reported that she has been able to get a lot of assistance from talking with her friends and running. She stated her friends are very supportive and that running helps her feel better about herself. Client agreed that if she continued feeling this way over the next 24 hours, she would call her best friend and go for a run.

Cognitive

Client appeared to be clear and logical in her thinking. Client denied any auditory or visual hallucinations (AH/VH) or delusions. She was future-oriented and has a plan in place if she does not start feeling better.

*A progress note is a note used to document interaction with a client. A good example of a common process note is a SOAP note. Many agencies use the SOAP note to document contact with clients. SOAP notes refer to the following type of assessment: subjective, objective, assessment, and plan.

Affective

Behavioral

Cognitive

ACC 544 Final EXAM

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

1) Which is NOT one of the AICPA’s Code of Professional Conduct principles?

A. The public interest

B. Integrity

C. Quality control

D. Scope and nature of services

2) The ethical philosophy that considers the consequences of similar persons acting under similar circumstances is called

A. utilitarian principle.

B. imperative principle.

C. categorical imperative.

D. generalization argument.

3) The fundamental issues in independence require that the auditor avoid

A. financial connections with the client and financial connections with the client’s competitors.

B. acting as management and representing the shareholder’s interests.

C. responsibility for the client’s internal control and subordinating judgment concerning audit issues.

D. financial connections with the firm and acting as management.

4) Auditors have greater liability under the Securities Act of 1933. Which is the reason that this greater liability exists?

A. The auditor is liable for treble damages under the Securities Act of 1933.

B. The plaintiff does not have to prove that the financial statements were misstated.

C. The plaintiff does not have to prove that they relied on the financial statements.

D. The plaintiff does not have to prove that there were damages.

5) The legal doctrine that states that a successful plaintiff may recover the full amount of damages from any defendant thathas the ability to pay is called

A) Joint and several liability.

B) Proportionate liability.

C) Complete liability.

D) Total liability.

6) The SEC regulation that governs disclosures in annual reports other than financial statements is the

A. Securities Act of 1933.

B. Securities Exchange Act of 1934.

C. Regulation S-X.

D. Regulation S-K.

7) Inspection of tangible assets provides evidence for which assertion?

A. Existence and occurrence

B. Completeness

C. Rights and obligations

D. Presentation and disclosure

8) The risk that the auditor may provide an inappropriate opinion based on their review of materially misstated financial statements is referred to as

A. audit risk.

B. detection risk.

C. information risk.

D. business risk.

9) Auditors perform the steps in which order?

A. Determine audit risk; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and set materiality.

B. Set materiality; determine audit risk; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

C. Set materiality; assess control risk; determine detection risk; and determine audit risk.

D. Determine audit risk; set materiality; assess control risk; and determine detection risk.

10) An internal control questionnaire (ICQ) contains the question: “Does a single individual receive and list cato sales and general ledgers?” What action must an auditor take if the manager of accounting responds yes to the

A. No action is required because yes responses on an ICQ indicate the presence of good control.

B. Statistically sample the response along with all other yes responses to verify their accuracy.

C. Treat it as a potential control weakness and perform appropriate testing.

D. Include it with other reportable findings in the next audit report.

11) In addition to gaining an understanding of the internal controls, an external auditor, at minimum, is expect

A. evaluate the internal auditors’ work as an important part of the accounting system element of the inter

B. observe client employees to determine the extent of their compliance with quality control standards.

C. trace a few transactions through the control process to obtain evidence that the controls have been pla

D. study organization charts to obtain an understanding of the informal lines of communication.

12) Which method provides the auditor with the best visual grasp of a system and a means for analyzing complex operations?

A. A flowcharting approach

B. A matrix approach

C. A questionnaire approach

D. A detailed narrative approach

13) Which of the accounts is NOT included in the revenue and collection cycle?

A. Cash in bank

B. Raw materials

C. Accounts receivable

D. Bad debt expense

14) The most reliable evidence comes from

A. a positive confirmation.

B. a blank confirmation.

C. a negative confirmation.

D. examining a sales invoice.

15) Custody is transferred from the warehouse to the shipping department upon authorization of the

A. shipping order.

B. purchase order.

C. customer order.

D. invoice.

16) An enlightened management may decrease the probability of fraud in the company best by

A. restricting authority for profit objective determination to top management.

B. stressing negative observations on their work to increase performance.

C. measuring performance and awarding bonuses on the basis of short-term operating results.

D. establishing work teams that share responsibilities, performance, and bonuses based on collective effor

17) A proof of cash is normally used

A. for all engagements.

B. when control risk for cash is low.

C. to test the transactions process when controls over cash are weak.

D. when lapping is suspected.

18) Which is an appropriate audit program step for the review of canceled checks for authorized signatures?

A. Compare the check date with the first cancellation date.

B. Examine a representative sample of signed checks, and determine that the signatures are authorized in the corporate signature book.

C. Determine that all checks are to be signed by an individual authorized by the board.

D. Confirm the signatures from a sample of checks directly with the bank.

19) The production authorization starts with a

A. purchase order.

B. sales forecast.

C. production plan.

D. bill of materials.

20) Which is NOT recognized by GAAP as appropriate for determining inventory cost?

A. FIFO

B. Weighted average

C. LIFO

D. Standard costs

21) Inventory must be recorded when

A. the company has title to it.

B. the related revenue is recognized.

C. it is received.

D. it is shipped from the vendor.

22) Canceling invoices with a paid stamp after payment is a control that relates to which assertion?

A. Existence or occurrence

B. Rights and obligations

C. Completeness

D. Valuation or allocations

23) Which is NOT a step in the search for unrecorded liabilities?

A. Examine the open purchase order file.

B. Examine the unmatched receiving reports.

C. Examine disbursements for the period immediately before the end of the period.

D. All of these are steps in the search.

24) Which control question relates to the existence and occurrence objective in purchasing and accounts payable?

A. Are the purchase order forms prenumbered and is the numerical sequence checked for missing documents?

B. Does the chart of accounts and accounting manual provide instructions for classifying debit entries?

C. Does the accounting department check invoices for mathematical accuracy?

D. Are receiving reports prepared for each item received?

25) The audit objective that all transactions and accounts that should be presented in the financial statements are included is related to which assertion?

A. Existence or occurrence

B. Presentation and disclosure

C. Rights and obligations

D. Completeness

26) Which best describes the main reason independent auditors report on management’s financial statements?

A. A management fraud may exist, and it is likely to be detected by independent auditors.

B. The management that prepares the statements may have a poorly designed system of internal control.

C. The management that prepares the statements and ther persons who use the statements may have conflicting interests.

D. Misstated account balances may be corrected as the result of the independent audit work.

27) The audit objective that all footnotes have been included in the financial statements is related most closely to which assertation?

A. Existence or occurrence

B. Presentation and disclosure

C. Rights and obligations

D. Completeness

HRM 531 Final Exam

October 23, 2023/in Social Science /by elias

HRM 531 Final Exam

1) Distrust, disrespect, and animosity pertain to which component of indirect costs associated with mismanaged organizational stress?

A. Quality of work relations

B. Participation and membership

C. Performance on the job

D. Communication breakdowns

2) Inventory shrinkages and accidents pertain to which component of direct costs associated with mismanaged organizational stress?

A. Employee conflict

B. Performance on the job

C. Loss of vitality

D. Communication breakdowns

3) Thousands of equal-pay lawsuits have been filed, predominantly by ___________ since the Equal Pay Act of 1963 was passed

A. women

B. African Americans

C. the elderly

D. Americans with disabilities

4) What term refers to those actions appropriate to overcome the effects of past or present policies, practices, or other barriers to equal employment opportunity?

A. Reparation

B. Emancipation

C. Desegregation

D. Affirmative action

5) In the employment context, _______________ can be viewed broadly as giving an unfair advantage or disadvantage to the members of a particular group in comparison with the members of other groups

A. ethnocentrism

B. discrimination

C. seniority system

D. race norming

6) Thousands of equal-pay suits have been filed, predominantly by ___________ since the Equal Pay Act of 1963 was passed

A. women

B. African Americans

C. the elderly

D. Americans with disabilities

7) Which of the following observations is correct?

A. Diversity is problem focused, and affirmative action is opportunity focused

B. Diversity is government initiated, and affirmative action is voluntary

C. Diversity is proactive, and affirmative action is reactive

D. Diversity is quantitative, and affirmative action is qualitative

8) Which of the following would you associate with managing diversity?

A. Government initiated

B. Assumes integration

C. Internally focused

D. Quantitative

9) “To be the world’s best quick-service restaurant” is an example of what?

A. Organizational charter

B. Standard operating procedure

C. Code of ethics

D. Vision statement

10) _________ is a job analysis method that lists tasks or behaviors and involves workers rating each task or behavior in terms of whether or not it is performed. If the task is performed, workers also rate the frequency, importance, level of difficulty, and relationship to overall performance

A. Job performance

B. Structured questionnaires

C. Interviews

D. Critical incidents

11) Recruitment begins by specifying _____, which are the typical results of job analysis and workforce planning activities

A. human resource requirements

B. strategic imperatives

C. succession plans

D. affirmative action candidates

12) The step following recruitment is _____, which is basically a rapid, rough selection process

A. an orientation

B. an initial screening

C. a suspension

D. a workforce plan

13) During the _____ stage, it is most important to select the managers who can develop stable management systems to preserve the gains achieved during the embryonic stage

A. mature

B. high-growth

C. aging

D. embryonic

14) Increasing an individual’s employability outside the company simultaneously increases his or her job security and desire to stay with the current employer. What is this known as?

A. Training paradox

B. Pygmalion effect

C. Distributed practice

D. Massed practice

15) Which is a characteristic of the most effective training practices?

A. Training starts at the bottom of the organization

B. Training is part of the corporate culture

C. Training is evaluated by checking participant reactions

D. Little time is spent assessing training needs

16) Which analysis is helpful in determining the special needs of a particular group, such as older workers, women, or managers at different levels?

A. Individual

B. Operations

C. Demographic

D. Organization

17) Providing adequate resources to get a job done right and on time, and paying careful attention to selecting employees, are parts of

A. employee welfare

B. grievance management

C. performance appraisal

D. performance facilitation

18) This can be thought of as a compass that indicates a person’s actual direction as well as a person’s desired direction.

A. Management by objectives

B. Forced distribution

C. Central tendency

D. Performance management

19) What would you call a meeting that is typically done once a year to identify and discuss job-relevant strengths and weaknesses of individuals or work teams?

A. performance appraisal

B. performance facilitation

C. performance encouragement

D. performance standard

20) When managing careers, what should organizations do?

A. Plan for shorter employment relationships

B. Focus primarily on employee needs and aspirations

C. Allow employees to structure work assignments

D. Focus on and recognize career stages that employees go through

21) A sequence of positions occupied by a person during the course of a lifetime is characteristic of what type of career?

A. Subjective

B. Objective

C. Specific

D. General

22) In the new world of career management, the primary goal is to provide which of the following for employees?

A. Rising aspirations

B. Executive ranking

C. Psychological success

D. Time off when they need it

23) At a broad level, _____ includes anything an employee values and desires that an employer is able and willing to offer in exchange for employee contributions

A. a competency-based pay system

B. an employee stock ownership plan

C. an organizational reward system

D. a merit-pay method

24) This benefit, tied mostly to profitability and promising better job security, but not guaranteeing it, is at the center of the evolving bonus system

A. Contribution-based pay

B. Competency-based pay

C. Skill-based pay

D. Flexible pay

25) Financial rewards include direct payments plus indirect payments in the form of what?

A. Individual equity

B. Corporate compensation

C. Spot awards

D. Employee benefits

26) Which law offers full coverage for retirees, dependent survivors, and disabled persons insured by 40 quarters of payroll taxes on their past earnings or earnings of heads of households?

A. Federal Unemployment Tax Act

B. Social Security Act

C. Workers’ compensation

D. Employee Retirement Income Security Act

27) Plans are known as _____ when the employees share in the cost of the premiums

A. share-based

B. contributory

C. distributive

D. peer participating

28) Which type of justice refers to the quality of interpersonal treatment that employees receive in their everyday work?

A. Interactional

B. Informational

C. Distributive

D. Blind

29) Procedural justice affects citizenship behaviors by influencing employees’ perceptions of _____, the extent to which the organization values employees’ general contributions and cares for their well being.

A. due process

B. management accessibility

C. indirect compensation

D. organizational support

30) When companies discover they can communicate better with their customers through employees who are similar to their customers, those companies then realize they have increased their _____ diversity.

A. primary

B. secondary

C. internal

D. external

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