534 FIN QUIZ 10  (CHAPTER 17)

Question 1 2 out of 2 points

Suppose 6 months ago a Swiss investor bought a 6-month U.S. Treasury bill at a price of $9,708.74, with a maturity value of $10,000. The exchange rate at that time was 1.420 Swiss francs per dollar. Today, at maturity, the exchange rate is 1.324 Swiss francs per dollar. What is the annualized rate of return to the Swiss investor?

Question 2 2 out of 2 points

Suppose hockey skates sell in Canada for 105 Canadian dollars, and 1 Canadian dollar equals 0.71 U.S. dollars. If purchasing power parity (PPP) holds, what is the price of hockey skates in the United States?

Question 3 2 out of 2 points

A box of candy costs 28.80 Swiss francs in Switzerland and $20 in the United States. Assuming that purchasing power parity (PPP) holds, what is the current exchange rate?

Question 4 2 out of 2 points

Which of the following statements is NOT CORRECT?

Question 5 2 out of 2 points

Suppose a foreign investor who holds tax-exempt Eurobonds paying 9% is considering investing in an equivalent-risk domestic bond in a country with a 28% withholding tax on interest paid to foreigners. If 9% after-tax is the investor’s required return, what before-tax rate would the domestic bond need to pay to provide the required after-tax return?

Question 6 2 out of 2 points

If the inflation rate in the United States is greater than the inflation rate in Britain, other things held constant, the British pound will

Question 7 2 out of 2 points

If one Swiss franc can purchase $0.71 U.S. dollars, how many Swiss francs can one U.S. dollar buy?

Question 8 2 out of 2 points

Suppose 90-day investments in Britain have a 6% annualized return and a 1.5% quarterly (90-day) return. In the U.S., 90-day investments of similar risk have a 4% annualized return and a 1% quarterly (90-day) return. In the 90day forward market, 1 British pound equals $1.65. If interest rate holds, what parity is the spot exchange rate?

Question 9 2 out of 2 points

If one U.S. dollar buys 1.64 Canadian dollars, how many U.S. dollars can you purchase for one Canadian dollar?

Question 10 2 out of 2 points

Suppose one year ago, Hein Company had inventory in Britain valued at 240,000 pounds. The exchange rate for dollars to pounds was 1 = 2 U.S. dollars. This year the exchange rate is 1 = 1.82 U.S. dollars. The inventory in Britain is still valued at 240,000 pounds. What is the gain or loss in inventory value in U.S. dollars as a result of the change in exchange rates?

Question 11 2 out of 2 points

Suppose 144 yen could be purchased in the foreign exchange market for one U.S. dollar today. If the yen depreciates by 8.0% tomorrow, how many yen could one U.S. dollar buy tomorrow?

Question 12 2 out of 2 points

Suppose the exchange rate between U.S. dollars and Swiss francs is SF 1.41 = $1.00, and the exchange rate between the U.S. dollar and the euro is $1.00 = 1.64 euros. What is the cross-rate of Swiss francs to euros?

Question 13 2 out of 2 points

Suppose in the spot market 1 U.S. dollar equals 1.60 Canadian dollars. 6-month Canadian securities have an annualized return of 6% (and thus a 6-month periodic return of 3%). 6month U.S. securities have an annualized return of 6.5% and a periodic return of 3.25%. If interest rate parity holds, what is the U.S. dollar-Canadian dollar exchange rate in the 180-day forward market?

Question 14 2 out of 2 points

Suppose one British pound can purchase 1.82 U.S. dollars today in the foreign exchange market, and currency forecasters predict that the U.S. dollar will depreciate by 12.0% against the pound over the next 30 days. How many dollars will a pound buy in 30 days?

Question 15 2 out of 2 points

Suppose that currently, 1 British pound equals 1.62 U.S. dollars and 1 U.S. dollar equals 1.62 Swiss francs. What is the cross exchange rate between the pound and the franc?

Read the following information:

Health care facilities are unique and have clearly defined characteristics based on the needs of the facility or population being served. Poor design may lead to staff, visitor, or patient stress. In large facilities, inability to find a department may lead to frustrations and disorientation for older patients. Poor layout may also lead to staff inefficiencies or fines because of failure to meet regulatory requirements.

Resource: Facility Planning – Part III on the student Website

Download the SmartDraw Healthcare software located on your student Website in Week Four.

Complete a floor plan of the facilitythat you selected.

Select one of the following facilities and obtain approval from your faculty regarding this choice. Indicate if this will be a new facility or the renovation of an existing structure. If it is a new or existing structure, also explain why the renovation or new facility is needed.

An ambulatory care clinic

A clinic within a hospital, such as an emergency room, surgical center, or an OB unit

A family clinic

An outpatient clinic

A long-term care facility

Choose the template you want to use and it will then open in the SmartDraw software. From that point, you will be able to modify the template and add the information listed below. Once you have completed the floor plan and you are still in the SmartDraw software, save it as a Word .doc file. This will keep the file size small and you may post the file in your appropriate course folder.

Using your SmartDraw floor plan, focus on the following environmental design elements:

The healthcare structure

Diagnostic and treatment space equipment and location

Customer service and amenities, such as the reception desk, bathroom, shower, vending machine, and so forth

Clinical support areas, such as nurse’s station, charting areas, and so forth

Physician or dentist office space for patient consultation

Administrative offices

Building support, such as laundry, generator facilities, housekeeping, and so forth

Mechanical equipment, such as space for laboratory equipment, radiology equipment, gases such as oxygen, and suctions

Color and noise elements

Regulatory elements such as Occupational Safety and Health Administration and ADA guidelines

Other elements such as IT or creative healing environmental ideas

Write a 350- to 700-word summary that includes the following information:

Reason you selected the floor plan you designed

Any recommendations or suggestions for completing your floor plan differently – what would you do differently next time?

Something that you learned from doing this process and completing your own floor plan

1) In her work in the publishing industry, Vera seeks out new authors whom she considers promising. In the past 2 years she has found a number of new writers whose work she thought was exceptional, and immersed herself in the task of helping them shape their manuscripts for submission to her managers for publishing. Although she was extremely proud of the results, none of the authors she worked with were chosen for publication. Vera believes that the decision not to publish these authors was based on personal rivalries within management, rather than the quality of her writers’ work. She is extremely frustrated, dreads coming into work each morning, and is seriously thinking of resigning. How can Vera’s job attitude best be described?            

A. Low job satisfaction and low job involvement

B. High job satisfaction and low job involvement

C. Low job satisfaction and high job involvement

D. High job satisfaction and high job involvement

 2) Julia works as a receptionist at a real-estate company. Her boss just came in the door and yelled at her, telling her that the front office was a mess and that she needed to get up and clean it immediately. After her boss left the room, Julia grabbed three magazines and violently slammed them into the trash can. Which of the following best describes Julia’s action?           

 A.  An affect

 B.  A thought

 C.  A mood

 D.  An emotion

3) Erin works on a software help desk. After being yelled at by a customer about the state of her company’s software, she becomes angry, and has to take a short break to calm down. What makes her anger an emotion, rather than a mood?           

a.             It is a simple, unambiguous feeling.

b.             It interferes with her capacity to work effectively.

c.             It has a contextual stimulus.

d.             It can be controlled given some time.

 4) Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes results in what?

a.             organizational dissonance

b.             cognitive dissonance

c.             attitudinal clarification

d.             values clarification

 5) What is the degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance as being important to self-worth?           

a. Job satisfaction

b. Job involvement

c. Job stability

d. Job enrichment

6) What term is used for those emotions that an organization requires workers to show and considers appropriate for a given job?    

   a.     Felt emotions

   b.        Required emotions

   c.       Conditional emotions

   d.       Displayed emotions

 7) Janet needs to assign a very important advertising account to one of her writers. First she reviewed each writers work load, then she studied the sales data of the products for the last three campaigns of each writer, then she reviewed each writer’s annual review to familiarize herself with their goals. Finally, she gave the account to Paula, a very creative, efficient writer who has had high sales results with her last three clients’ products. What is Janet’s management style is based on?

a) organizational behavioral studies

b) substantive evidence approach

c) preconceived notions

d) systematic study

8) Basing managerial methods on the best available scientific evidence is called what?                 

A. Systematic study

B. Organizational behavior

C. Evidence-based management

D. Conceptual management           

9) The manager at a construction site observes that he is spending a great deal of time interviewing prospective employees. This is due to the large amount of absenteeism and turnover among his skilled workers. While questioning exiting employees, he discovers that many of them quit because they feel the work place is too dangerous. In particular, several foremen have stated that the need to get the job done quickly is more important than a few rules, and have gone as far as to mock the courage of workers who question this attitude. What is the best way for the manager to control the deviant behavior of the foremen?         

A. Ordering the foremen to conform with the required safety standards

B.  Finding out why the foremen place a greater importance on finishing the job than on safety

C.  Firing the foremen and promoting new foremen from the current pool of workers

D.  Taking over the work of the foreman himself

10) Phil loves sales. He has been a stellar sales person since he was 12. Recently he was awarded a full paid trip for two to Puerto Rico for breaking a company sales record. Phil is so motivated to work, he has set a new goal to break his old record in the coming year. Taking into account self-determination theory, why did the company recognition and award, an extrinsic reward, motivate Phil?             

A. The reward was seen as a coercive method of increasing sales and motivated Phil to prove himself intrinsically.

B.  The reward was imposed to work toward a standard that Phil could not believe in, and his intrinsic motivation suffered.

C.  The reward increased Phil’s sense of competence by providing feedback that improved his intrinsic motivation.

D. The reward increased Phil’s sense of competence by providing feedback that diminished his intrinsic motivation.

 11) Tony loves programming. He was on the ground level of the computer revolution. This year his boss has set personal goals for each of the programmers, one of which includes a presentation from each programmer about a project. Tony is very annoyed because he has a tremendous amount of work to do and he will have to spend the weekend, his personal time, preparing the presentation. Taking into account self-determination theory, why did his manager’s goals and the presentation reduce Tony’s motivation?    

A.    The internally imposed goal feels coercive, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to suffer.

B.    The self-imposed goal increases his sense of competence, causing the intrinsic motivation to suffer.

C.    The externally imposed goal is an external reward, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to increase.

D.    The externally imposed goal feels coercive, causing Tony’s intrinsic motivation to suffer.

 12) Glendon has a degree in business and worked for 2 years at an international firm in Spain. When the firm suffered cutbacks and Glendon returned home, he took a job at a nonprofit agency mentoring at-risk Spanish-speaking children. Glendon earns a third of what he earned in the business world, but has decided that his new goal is to acquire a larger case load and continue to use his Spanish to help people. Which theory explains why Glendon is happy with a much smaller external reward for his work?    

A.    Self-imposition of goals

B.    nAch

C.    Self-concordance

D.    Extrinsic motivation

 13) Today Marci’s boss entered her cubicle and told her that her work has been fantastic, and that because of her last project the client is going to give the company all of their business. Marci’s boss continued to talk about what a great job she’s doing. When her boss left, Marci felt very confident and satisfied with herself and her job. Marci’s boss uses communication in which of the following functions?    

A.    Motivation

B.    Control

C.    Emotional expression

D.    Information

 14) What can managers do to make sure that important information is not withheld from them through silence?

A.    Listen to and support diverse opinions.

B.    Deal with information overload.

C.    Interpret what they see and call it reality.

D.    Tell employees what they want to hear.

 15) When Neal Patterson, CEO of Cerner Corporation, sent his seething e-mail to 400 managers, he erred by selecting the wrong

A.    channel for his message

B.    message

C.    distribution

D.    emotional charge

 16) Araceli is a team member in a large corporation. She never speaks in the team meetings because she has seen members talk behind each others’ backs outside of the meetings. Members are constantly monitoring the other member’s work, looking for a mistake to point out in a meeting. According to the information provided, which contextual factor is most likely hindering the success of Araceli’s team?  

A.    Adequate resources

B.    Climate of trust

C.    Team structure

D.    Performance evaluations

 17) Ayesha is leading a group to develop a prototype for a new product. She has chosen three people to work with her. Ben and Tom are good friends and socialize on the weekend. They are both very creative. Julian is older than Ben and Tom, but they have worked together before and been quite productive. Julian is organized. Ayesha has never worked with any of the men, but knows the product well. She brings the highest level of expertise. Which of the following statements best describes Ayesha’s group?  

A.    High norms, low cohesiveness, high productivity

B.    Low norms, low cohesiveness, low productivity

C.    High norms, high cohesiveness, high productivity

D.    Low norms, high cohesiveness, low productivity

 18) Irma does not like a few of the standard operating procedures adapted for the new project. However, she discussed the items with the team and told them that she realized she was in the minority and that she would adapt the new procedures to maintain smooth operations within the team. What is this type of intention called?   

A.    Sacrificing

B.    Accommodating

C.    Collaborating

D.    Compromising

19) Angelina feels that her cubicle neighbor talks too loudly on the phone, but in other ways she is a great neighbor. Angelina gets annoyed every time her neighbor’s phone rings, but she has decided it is simply not worth the trouble to talk to her neighbor. What is Angelina’s conflict intention called?

A.    Avoiding

B.    Accommodating

C.    Compromising.

D.    Collaborating

20) For process conflict to be productive, it must be   

A.    Kept high

B.    Kept low

C.    Kept at low to moderate levels

D.    Kept at moderate levels

 21) The right inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect orders to be obeyed is termed          

A.    chain of command

B.    authority

C.    power

D.    unity of command

 22) ________ are consistent with recent efforts by companies to reduce costs, cut overhead, speed up decision making, increase flexibility, get closer to customers, and empower employees.

A.    Wider spans of control

B.    Narrower spans of control

C.    Matrix structures

D.    Simple structures

 23) What is the process through which employees are adapted to an organization’s culture?           

A.    Personalization

B.    Mentoring

C.    Socialization

D.    Institutionalization

 24) If there is a basic conflict between the individual’s expectations and the reality of working in an organization, the employee is most likely to be disillusioned and quit during which stage of socialization?      

 A.   Prearrival

 B.   Ritual

 C.   Metamorphosis

 D.   Encounter    

 25) When your superior offers you a raise if you will perform additional work beyond the requirements of your job, he or she is exercising ________ power.          

 A.   Legitimate

 B.   Coercive

 C.   Reward

 D.   Personal

 26) Political behaviors usually

A.    lie outside of an individual’s specified job performance

B.     are counter productive to individual goals

C.     are seen only in large organizations

D.     are frowned upon by organizational leaders

 27) Regardless of the composition of a group, managers can leverage diversity to achieve superior performance by which of the following approaches?         

A.     Emphasize the higher-level similarities among members.

B.     Ensure that everyone knows the importance of diversity in groups.

C.     Explain the legal and ethical implications involved of not having a diverse group.

D.     Focus on the benefits of having a diverse group.

28) Effective workforce programs that encourage diversity have three distinct components. First, they inform managers about the legal framework for equal employment opportunities and encourage fair treatment. Second, they teach managers how a diverse workforce will be better able to serve a diverse market of customers and clients. Third, they           

A.     ensure top-level management represents the diversity of its workforce and client base

B.     ensure that certain groups have not been underutilized

C.     generally involve one-shot training sessions that don’t take up an undue amount of time

D.     foster personal development practices that bring out the skills and abilities of all workers

 29) If individuals resisting change are included in making change decisions in an attempt to gain their support, what is this approach called?

 A.   Cooptation

 B.   Exploitation

 C.   Manipulation

 D.   Coercion

30) Which tactic to overcome resistance to change is a relatively easy way to gain the support of adversaries, but may backfire if the targets become aware of the tactic?

 A.    Conciliation

B.    Manipulation

C.     Coercion

D.     Cooperation

Readthe following scenario:

·In 1979, the Three Mile Island nuclear reactor malfunctioned, releasing radiation into the environment. There were no immediate deaths or injuries resulting from the incident; however, the accident drew much media attention and created concerns in the local area and beyond. The major forms of communication used to report these events were the three major television networks and local radio stations.

In 2005, Hurricane Katrina devastated the New Orleans area and immersed a significant part of the city in water. Local citizens and their families were affected. In contrast to the Three Mile Island incident, newer communication technologies, such as the Internet, were used to disseminate information.

Today, you are the director of a regional Emergency Management Office. You begin receiving official reports that the public water supplies of several towns in the area have become contaminated with a life-threatening biological agent. Contingency plans must be addressed within the organization and with the public without creating a panic.

Write a 1,400- to 1,750-word paper on essential communication in a community crisis situation described in the scenario.

Include the following in your paper:

·The individuals or groups that will be communicating inside and outside the organization during this crisis situation

·Potential advantages and challenges associated with communicating within the organization and with the public and private sectors during this crisis situation

·Differences in communication processes used in crisis situations, including what you learned from the situations in the scenario and how you might incorporate that knowledge to improve health care communication strategies

·Appropriate technology, such as social media, affecting communication during the crisis situation and how these technologies may be used to enhance communication

·How technology might be used differently now than it was during the crisis situations described in the scenario

·Media opportunities during this management crisis

Cite a minimum of three sources, one from the University Library and another from the course textbooks or Electronic Reserve Readings, to support your position.

Format your paper consistent with APA guidelines.

1) The largest source of household income in the U.S. is obtained from

            A.   stock dividends

            B.   wages and salaries

            C.   interest earnings

            D.   rental income

2) The market where business sell goods and services to households and the government is called the

            A.   goods market

            B.   factor market

            C.   capital market

            D.   money market

3) Real gross domestic product is best defined as

            A.   the market value of intermediate goods and services produced in an economy, including exports

            B.   all goods and services produced in an economy, stated in the prices of a given year and multiplied by quantity

            C.   the market value of all final goods and services produced in an economy, stated in the prices of a given year

            D.   the market value of goods and services produced in an economy, stated in current-year prices

4) Underemployment includes people

            A.   who work “off-the-books” to avoid tax liabilities

            B.   who are working part time, or not using all their skills at a full-time job

            C.   who are tired of looking for a job, so they quit looking, but still want one

            D.   whose skills are not in demand anymore

5) The Bureau of Economic Analysis is responsible for which of the following?

            A.   Setting interest rates

            B.   Managing the money supply

            C.   Calculating U.S. gross domestic product]

            D.   Paying unemployment benefits

6) The Federal Reserve provides which of the following data?

            A.   Federal funds rate

            B.   Stock price of GE

            C.   Bond yields of corporations

            D.   Debt to GDP of Ireland

7) Consider if the government instituted a 10 percent income tax surcharge. In terms of the AS/AD model, this change should have

            A.   shifted the AD curve to the left

            B.   shifted the AD curve to the right

            C.   made the AD curve flatter

            D.   made the AD curve steeper

8) If the depreciation of a country’s currency increases its aggregate expenditures by 20, the AD curve will

            A.   shift right by more than 20

            B.   shift right by less than 20

            C.   shift right by exactly 20

            D.   not shift at all

9) Aggregate demand management policies are designed most directly to

            A.   minimize unemployment

            B.   minimize inflation

            C.   control the aggregate level of spending in the economy

            D.   prevent budget deficits or surpluses

10) Suppose that consumer spending is expected to decrease in the near future. If output is at potential output, which of the following policies is most appropriate according to the AS/AD model?

            A.   An increase in government spending

            B.   An increase in taxes

            C.   A reduction in government spending

            D.   No change in taxes or government spending

11) According to Keynes, market economies

            A.   never experience significant declines in aggregate demand

            B.   quickly recover after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand

            C.   may recover slowly after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand

            D.   are constantly experiencing significant declines in aggregate demand

12) The laissez-faire policy prescription to eliminate unemployment was to

            A.   eliminate labor unions and government policies that hold real wages too high

            B.   strengthen unions and government regulations protecting unions and workers

            C.   increase real wages so that people are encouraged to work

            D.   have government guarantee jobs for everyone

13) In the AS/AD model, an expansionary monetary policy has the greatest effect on the price level when it

            A.   increases both nominal and real income

            B.   increases real income but not nominal income

            C.   increases nominal income but not real income

            D.   doesn’t increase real or nominal income

14) The Federal funds rate

            A.   is always slightly higher than the discount rate

            B.   can never be close to zero

            C.   may sometimes have to be targeted at zero

            D.   is an intermediate target

15) What tool of monetary policy will the Federal Reserve use to increase the federal funds rate from 1% to 1.25%?

            A.   Open-market operations

            B.   The discount rate

            C.   A change in reserve requirements

            D.   Margin requirements

16) If the Federal Reserve increases the required reserves, financial institutions will likely lend out

            A.   more than before, increasing the money supply

            B.   less than before, decreasing the money supply

            C.   more than before, decreasing the money supply

            D.   less than before, increasing the money supply

17) Suppose the money multiplier in the U.S. is 3. Suppose further that if the Federal Reserve changes the discount rate by 1 percentage point, banks change their reserves by 300. To increase the money supply by 2700 the Federal Reserve should

            A.   reduce the discount rate by 3 percentage points

            B.   reduce the discount rate by 10 percentage points

            C.   raise the discount rate by 3 percentage points

            D.   raise the discount rate by 10 percentage points

18) If the Federal Reserve reduced its reserve requirement from 6.5 percent to 5 percent. This policy would most likely

            A.   increase both the money multiplier and the money supply

            B.   increase the money multiplier but decrease the money supply

            C.   decrease the money multiplier but increase the money supply

            D.   decrease both the money multiplier and the money supply

19) A country can have a trade deficit as long as it can

            A.   purchase foreign assets

            B.   make loans to other countries

            C.   borrow from or sell assets to foreigners

            D.   produce more than it consumes.

20) A weaker dollar

            A.   raises inflation and contracts the economy.

            B.   reduces inflation and contracts the economy

            C.   raises inflation and expands the economy

            D.   reduces inflation and expands the economy

21) In the short run, a trade deficit allows more consumption, but in the long run, a trade deficit is a problem because

            A.   the country eventually will consume more and produce less

            B.   the country eventually will sell all its financial assets to foreigners

            C.   the domestic currency will appreciate

            D.   the country eventually has to produce more than it consumes in order to pay foreigners their profits

22) Considering an economy with a current trade deficit and considering only the direct effect on income, an expansionary monetary policy tends to

            A.   decrease the exchange rate and increase the trade deficit

            B.   increase the exchange rate and increase the trade deficit

            C.   decrease the exchange rate and decrease the trade deficit

            D.   increase the exchange rate and decrease the trade deficit

23) The balance of trade measures the

            A.   difference between the value of imports and exports

            B.   share of U.S. imports coming from various regions of the world

            C.   share of U.S. exports going to various regions of the world

            D.   exchange rate needed to make imports equal exports

24) When a country runs a trade deficit, it does so by:

            A.   borrowing from foreign countries or selling assets to them.

            B.   borrowing from foreign countries or buying assets from them.

            C.   lending to foreign countries or selling assets to them.

            D.   lending to foreign countries or buying assets from them.

25) Expansionary fiscal policy tends to

            A.   raise U.S. income, increase U.S. imports, and increase the trade deficit

            B.   raise U.S. income, increase U.S. imports, and lower the trade deficit

            C.   lower U.S. income, reduce U.S. imports, and increase the trade deficit

            D.   lower U.S. income, reduce U.S. imports, and lower the trade deficit

26) In considering the net effect of expansionary fiscal policy on the trade deficit, the

            A.   income effect offsets the price effect

            B.   price effect offsets the income effect

            C.   income and price effects work in the same direction, so the trade deficit is decreased

            D.   income and price effects work in the same direction, so the trade deficit is increased

27) If U.S. interest rates fall relative to Japanese interest rates and Japanese inflation falls relative to U.S. inflation, then the

            A.   dollar will lose value in terms of yen

            B.   dollar will gain value in terms of yen

            C.   dollar’s value will not change in terms of yen

            D.   change in the dollar’s value cannot be determined

28) Expansionary monetary policy tends to

            A.   lower the U.S. interest rate and increase the U.S. exchange rate

            B.   lower the U.S. interest rate and decrease the U.S. exchange rate

            C.   increase the U.S. interest rate and decrease the U.S. exchange rate

            D.   increase the U.S. interest rate and increase the U.S. exchange rate

29) The U.S. has limits on Chinese textile imports. Such limits are an example of

            A.   a tariff

            B.   a quota

            C.   a regulatory trade restriction

            D.   an embargo

30) Duties imposed by the U.S. government on imported Chinese frozen and canned shrimp are an example of

            A.   tariffs

            B.   quotas

            C.   voluntary restrictions

            D.   regulatory trade restrictions